Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 06:37
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What legal actions can be taken if a neighbor's unleashed dog causes harm or injury?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
What is something you want to "get off your chest"?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.